Wednesday, 29 May 2013

CSAT-2013

CSAT -2013


1    d
2    a
3    a
4    b
5    b
6    c
7    d
8    d
9    a
10    c
11    d
12    a
13    a
14    c
15    a
16    c
17    b
18    d
19    a
20    a
21    b
22    d
23    a
24    b
25    c
26    b
27    c
28    c
29    d
30    a
31    b
32    d
33    b
34    c
35    d
36    a
37    a
38    d
39    c
40    b
41    b
42    c
43    c
44    b
45    c
46    b-c
47    b
48    a-b
49    b
50    c
51    b
52    d
53    b
54    c
55    b
56    d
57    c
58    a
59    b
60    a
61    b
62    a
63    c
64    a
65    b
66    d
67    b
68    c
69    c
70    d
71    b
72    a
73    b
74    b
75    a
76    c
77    c
78    c
79    a
80    c


Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Read the following passage and answer the two items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
Ecological research over the last quarter of the century has established the deletes effects    of habitat fragmentation due to mining highways and such other   intrusions   on   forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggravating this threat.
1.    What is the central focus of this passage?
    (a)    Illegal mining in forests
    (b)    Extinction of wildlife
    (c)    Conservation of nature
    (d)    Disruption of habitat

2.    What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors?
    1.    Preservation of biodiversity.
    2.    Management of mineral resources.
    3.    Grant   of   forest   lands   for   human activities.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

3.    In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added   to the collection and the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be 1 : 2. Based on the information, the total   number of coins in the collection now becomes.
    (a)    90
    (b)    80
    (c)    60
    (d)    50

4.    A gardener has 1000 plants. He wants to plant them in such a way that the, number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of plants that   he needs more for this purpose?
    (a)    14
    (b)    24
    (c)    32
    (d)    34

5.    A sum of ` 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is ` 20 less than its preceding prize, what is the least value of the prize?
    (a)    ` 30
    (b)    ` 40
    (c)    ` 60
    (d)    ` 80

6.    Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a drivers license. What is the ratio between the minimum to maximum number of   males having driver's license?
    (a)    1 to 2
    (b)    2 to 3
    (c)    3 to 7
    (d)    5 to 7

7.    In a garrison,    there   was   food   for 1000 soldiers for one    month.    After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the remaining food?
    (a)    25 days
    (b)    20 days
    (c)    15 days
    (d)    10 days

8.    The tank-full petrol in Aran's motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more everyday, how many days will the tank-full petrol last?
    (a)    5
    (b)    6
    (c)    7
    (d)    8

9.    A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will he take to drive both ways?
    (a)    Two hours
    (b)    Two and a half hours
    (c)    Five and a half hours
    (d)    Four hours

Directions    for    the   following   8   (eight) items:
Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage - 1
The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to 'impose' democracy on countries in the non-Western world (in these countries' 'own interest', of course) and those who are opposed to such 'imposition' (because of the respect for the countries' 'own ways'). But the entire language of 'imposition', used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs, exclusively Wo the West, taking it to be a quintessentially 'Western' idea which has originated and flourished only in the West.
But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of the West.
It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major 'Western' achievement here.

10.    Which of the following is closest to the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage ?
(a)    The subject of democracy is a muddle due to a desire to portray it as a Western concept, 'alien' to non-Western countries.
(b)    The language of imposition of democracy is inappropriate. There is, however, a need to consider this concept in the backdrop of culture of 'own ways' of non-Western society.
(c)    While democracy is not essentially a Western idea belonging exclusively to the West, the institutional struRure of current democratic practices has been their contribution.
(d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

11.    With    reference.  to    the    passage,    the following assumptions have been made :
1.    Many of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they take democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West.
2.    Western countries are always trying to impose democracy on non-Western countries.
    Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions ?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Passage - 2
    Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company.
    Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence   that   is   associated   with   a
company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly, depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at Bore reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.

12.    According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good corporate governance ?
1.    Complies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land.
2.    Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency.
3.    The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3
13.    According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major-benefit/benefits of good corporate governance ?
1.    Good corporate governance leads to increase in share price of the company.
2.    A company with good corporate governance always increases its business turnover rapidly.
3.    Good corporate governance is the main criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a company.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    | 2 and 3

Passage - 3
    Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months an  two years. l This happens despite the child's food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to. poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat. adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per . cent of children under-five do not consume enough food. The child's dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them.
14.    According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced
(a)    if the children have regular intake of food.
(b)    after they cross the age of five.
(c)    if the food needs of younger children are known.
(d)    if the responsibility of feeding younger children is given to adults.

15.    According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the fact that:
1.    taking care of your ones is not a priority for working mothers.
2.    awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health authorities.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Passage - 4
    A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers' risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and cope with agricultural risks. These include   practices   like   crop   and   field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions.
    Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to  tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries - because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability.

16.    The   need   for   policy   intervention   to Up    mitigate risks in agriculture is because
(a)    farmers are extremely risk-averse.
(b)    farmers do not know how to mitigate risks.
(c)    the methods adopted by farmers and existing risk snaring institutions are not adequate.
(d)    majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture.

17.    Which off the following    observations emerges front the above passage ?
(a)    One can identify a single policy that can reduce risk without any side-effect.
(b)    No single risk-specific policy sufficient to reduce agricultural risk.
(c)    Policies which affect risk indirectly can eliminate it.
(d)    Government's policy intervention can mitigate agricultural risk completely.

18.    Consider the following statements:
(i)       A primary group is relatively smaller in size.
(ii)    Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group.
(iii)    A family may be an example of a primary group.
    In  the  light  of the   above  statements, which one of the following is true?
(a)    All families are primary groups.
(b)    All primary groups are families.
(c)    A group of small size is always a primary group.  
(d)    Members of a primary group know each other intimately.

19.    Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who gets the smallest amount ?
    (a)    A
    (b)    B
    (c)    C
    (d)    D
Direction for the following 4 (four) items:
    Read the following statements and answer the four items that follow :
    Five, cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows :
    P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail.
    S and R are connected by bus and boat.
    Q and T are connected by air only.
    P and R are connected by boat only.
    T and R are connected by rail and bus.

20.    Which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q, but without changing the mode of transport ?
    (a)    Boat
    (b)    Rail
    (c)    Bus
    (d)    Air

21.    If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which of    the    following places must he visit twice?
    (a)    Q
    (b)    R
    (c)    S
    (d)    T

22.    Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of the routes directly, without going to any other city?
    (a)    P and T
    (b)    T and S
    (c)    Q and R
    (d)    None of these

23.    Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there maximum travel options available?
    (a)    Q and S
    (b)    P and R
    (c)    P and T
    (d)    Q and R

Directions    for   the   following   3   (three) items:
    Read the following passage and answer the three items that follow:
    A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming . tournament. For this 7 players are available : males A, B and C; and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B can not play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.

24.    If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups ?
    (a)    A, C, Wand Y
    (b)    A, C, X and Y
    (c)    A, C, Y and Z
    (d)    A, W, Y and Z

25.    If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups ?
    (a)    A, B, C and w
     (b)    A, B, C and Z
    (c)    A, B, C and X
    (d)    A, W, Y and Z

26.    If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of four member teams are. possible?
    (a)    1
    (b)    2
    (c)    3
    (d)    4

27.    The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on different aspects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this work; they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Eunal, Mukesh and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal. .want to work together.
    Which of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected by the music director ?
(a)    Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal
(b)    Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit
(c)    Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant
(d)    Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh

 28.    Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.
    (i)    C is seated next to A.
    (ii)    A is seated two seats from D.
    (iii)    B is not seated next to A.
    Which of the following must be true?
    (I)    D is seated next to B.
    (II)    E is seated next to A.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)    I only
    (b)    II only
    (c)    Both I and II
    (d)    Neither I nor II
Directions     for   the  following  3   (three) items:  
    Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items. that follow :
    Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B arid C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball.

29.    Who does not play hockey?
    (a)    D
    (b)    C
    (c)    B
    (d)    A

30.    Who plays football, basketball   and hockey?
    (a)    D
    (b)    C
    (c)    B
    (d)    A

31.    Which game do B, C and D play?
    (a)    Basketball
    (b)    Hockey
    (c)    Cricket
    (d)    Football
32.    Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena's brother. Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the game more often than Geeta.
    Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one .of these logically follows from the information given above ?
(a)    While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses.
(b)    Geeta is the oldest among the three.
(c)    Geeta hates to lose the game.
(d)    Meena is the youngest of the three.

Direction for the following 4 (four) items:
    Read the following passage and answer the four items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
    Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater- part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem sheading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility.
    The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain    above    the    regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further globalization, consolidation, deregulation, and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance.

33.    According to the passage, the financial markets in the emerging market economies including India had the adverse impact in recent years due to
1.    weak global economic prospects.
2.    uncertainties   in   the   international financial markets.
3.    sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area,
4.    bad   monsoons   and   the   resultant crop loss.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 3
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

34.    The Indian financial markets are affected by global changes mainly due to the:
(a)    increased inflow of remittances from abroad.
(b)    enormous   increase   in   the   foreign exchange reserves.
(c)    growing      global      linkages      and integration  of the  Indian financial markets.
(d)    contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem.
35.    According to the passage, in the Indian financial system, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to ensure overall financial stability because Indian financial system is
(a)    controlled by the Government   of India.
(b)    less integrated with banks.
(c)    controlled by Reserve Bank of India.
(d)    dominated by banks.

36.    Risk and liquidity management assumes more importance in the Indian banking system in future due to:
1.    further globalization.
2.    more consolidation and deregulation of the financial system.
3.    further      diversification      of     the financial system.
4.     more    financial    inclusion   in   the economy.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1 and 2 only
    (d)    3 and 4 only

37.    There are five hobby clubs in a college viz., photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photograph group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days ?
    (a)    3
    (b)    5
    (c)    10
    (d)    18

38.    A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given that:
1.    B and C do not belong to Q.
2.    B and E do not belong to P and R.
3.    A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
4.    D and E do not belong to Q and T.
    Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a)    C belongs to P
    (b)    D belongs to R
    (c)    A belongs to Q
    (d)    B belongs to S

39.    Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, P and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can. see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
    (a)    Blue
    (b)    Violet
    (c)    Red
    (d)    Orange

40.    There are some balls of red green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow halls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls
(a)    is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls.
(b)    is double the number of green balls.
(c)    is equal to yellow balls minus green balls.
(d)    cannot be ascertained.
Passage
    Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt" and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heatj which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.

41.    Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not get completely decomposed because they
(a)   are constantly washed by the ocean currents.
(b)    become   rock   and   prevent   oxygen from entering them.
(c)     contain a mixture of hydrogen and carbon.
(d)    are carcasses of organisms lying in saline conditions.

42.    Sedimentary rock leads to the formation of oil deposits because
(a)    there are no saline conditions below it.
(b)    it allows some dissolved oxygen to enter the dead organic matter below it.
(c)    weight of overlying sediment layers causes the production of heat.
(d)    it contains the substances that catalyze the chemical reactions required to change dead organisms into oil.

43.    In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20 . When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?
    (a)    25th
    (b)    26th
    (c)    27th
    (d)    28th

44.    A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be
    (a)    2 min
    (b)    3 min
    (c)    4 min
    (d)    6 min

45.    A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours- to complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in km/hr ?
    (a)    24
    (b)    33
    (c)    42
    (d)    66

Directions for  the following  7  (seven) items:
    Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these  items should be Used on the passages only.
Passage-1
    The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation,     vegetation.
    The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus - based, from agricultural runoff (and human sewage) has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes (low nutrient concentrations, low plant productivity with abundant water weeds, and clear water) to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity (sometimes dominated by bloom-forming toxic species). This makes  the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and. fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication.    Thus,    important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation.
    The process of cultural eutorphication of lakes has been understood for some- time. But only recently did scientists notice huge 'dead zones' in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilizer.

46.    According to the passage, why should the discharge of agricultural slurry into, watercourses be restricted?
1.     Losing nutrients in this way is not a good practice economically.
2.    Watercourses do not contain the microorganisms that can decompose organic components of agricultural slurry.
3.    The discharge may lead' to the eutrophication. of water bodies.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

47.    The passage refers to. the conversion of "pollutant to fertilizer". What is pollutant and what is - fertilizer in this context?
(a)    Decomposed organic component of slurry    is pollutant and microorganisms in soil   constitute fertilizer.
(b)    Discharged agricultural slurry is pollutant and decomposed slurry in soil is fertilizer.
(c)    Sprayed slurry is pollutant and watercourse is fertilizer.
(d)    None of the above expressions is correct in this context.

48.    According to the passage, what are the effects of indiscriminate use of fertilizers ?
1.    Addition   of pollutants  to  the  soil and water.
2.    Destruction of decomposer microorganisms in soil.
3.    Nutrient enrichment of water bodies.
4.     Creation of algal blooms.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
  
49.    What is/are the characteristics of a water body with cultural eutrophication?
1.    Loss of ecosystem services
2.    Loss of flora and fauna
3.    Loss of mineral nutrients
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

50.    What     is     the   central  theme   of  passage ?
(a)    Appropriate legislation is essential to protect the environment.
(b)    Modern agriculture is responsible for the destruction of environment.
(c)    Improper     waste     disposal     from agriculture can destroy the aquatic ecosystems.
(d)    Use     of    chemical     fertilizers     is undesirable in agriculture.

  
Passage-2
    The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all misery we see. Let men have light, let them be pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals, but human misery will continue until man's character changes.
51.    According to the passage, which of the following statements is most likely to be true as the reason for man's miseries?
(a)    The    poor    economic    and    social conditions prevailing in society.
(b)    The refusal on the part of man S change his character,
(c)    The absence of physical and material help from his society.
(d)    Ever increasing physical needs due to changing social structure.

52.    With   reference    to    the    passage,   the following assumptions have been made:
1.    The author gives primary importance to physical and material help in eradicating human misery.
2.    Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can remove human misery to a great extent.
    Which of the assumptions is/are valid?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
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Directions for the following  8 (eight) items:
    The, following eight items (items 67 to 74) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.


English Passage - 1
    Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. "An old man and a little boy borrowed it," he explained. "They are going to bring it back at four o'clock." His parents were upset that he had given his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Came four o'clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the door bell rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim. suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and then came running out. "All right," he said, pf1 after examining the bicycle. "You can have your watch back!"

67.    When Jim came home without his bicycle, his parents
(a)    were angry with him.
(b)    were worried.
(c)    did not feel concerned.
(d)    were eager to meet the old man and the little boy.

68.    Jim returned the watch to the old man and the little boy because:
(a)    they gave him chocolates.
(b)    his father was proud of him.
(c)    he was satisfied with the condition of his bicycle.
(d)    they were late only by 30 minutes.

English Passage - 2
    It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on the other side of the hills. There we felt that we would find a bed for the night. Darkness fell soon after we left the village, but luckily we met no one as we drove swiftly along the narrow winding road that led to the hills. As we climbed higher, it became colder and rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road. I asked John, my companion, to drive more slowly. After we had travelled for about twenty kilometres, there was still no sign of the town which was marked on the map. We were beginning to get worried. Then without warning, the car stopped and we found we had run out of petrol.
69.    The  author  asked John -to  drive more slowly because
(a)    the road led to the hills.
(b)    John was an inexperienced driver.
(c)    the road was not clearly visible.
(d)    they were in wilderness.

70.    The travellers set out for the town although it was getting dark because
(a)    they were in a hurry.
(b)    the next town was a short distance away and was a hill-resort.
(c)    they were in wilderness.
(d)    the next town was a short distance away and promised a good rest for the night.    91

71.    The travellers were worried, after twenty kilometres because
(a)    it was a lonely countryside.
(b)    they probably feared of having lost their way.
(c)    the rain began to fall.
(d)    it was getting colder as they drove.

English Passage - 3
    A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traffic and no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-passengers, but she replied, "I'm going to walk where I like. We've got liberty how." It did not occur to the dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk down the middle of the road it also entitled the taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that the end of such liberty would universal chaos. Everything would be getting in everybody else's way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy.
72.    It was pointed out to the lady that she should walk on the pavement because she was
    (a)    a pedestrian,
    (b)    carrying a basket.
    (c)    stout.
    (d)    an old lady

73.    The lady refused to move from the middle of the street because
(a)    she was not afraid of being killed.
(b)    she felt. that she is entitled to do whatever she liked.
(c)    she   did   not  like   walking  on  the pavement.
(d)    she was confused.

74.    The old lady failed to realise that
(a)       he was no really free.
(b)    her liberty was not unlimited.
(c)    she was an old person. 8&
(d)    roads are made for motor vehicles only.

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Given below are six items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response $br each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these six items.
75.    You are the head of your office. There are certain houses reserved for the allotment to the office staff and you have been given the discretion to do so. A set of rules for the allotment of the houses has been laid down by you and has been made public. Your personal secretary, who is very close to you, comes to you and pleads that as his father is seriously ill, he should be given priority in allotment of a house. The office secretariat that examined the request as per the rules turns down the request and recommends the procedure to be followed according to the rules. You do not want to annoy your personal secretary. In such circumstances, what would you do ?
(a)    Call him over to your room and personally explain why the allotment cannot be done.
(b)    Allot the house to him to win his loyalty.
(c)    Agree with the office note to show that you are not biased and that you do not indulge in favouritism.
(d)    Keep the file with you and not pass any orders.
 
76.    While travelling in a Delhi-registered commercial taxi from Delhi to an adjacent city (another State), your taxi driver informs you that as he has no permit for running the taxi in that city, he will stop at its Transport Office and pay the prescribed fee of ` forty for a day. While paying the fee at the counter you find that the transport clerk is taking an extra fifty rupees for which no receipt is being given. You are in a hurry for your meeting. In such circumstances, what would you do?
(a)    Go up to the counter and ask the clerk to give back the money which he has illegally taken.
(b)    Do not interfere at all as this is a matter between the taxi driver and the tax authorities.
(c)    Take note of the incident and subsequently report the matter to the concerned authorities.
(d)    Treat it as a normal affair and simply forget about it.

77.    A person lives in a far off village which is almost two hours by bus. The villager's neighbour is a very powerful landlord who is trying to occupy the poor villager's land by force. Yen are the District Magistrate and busy in a meeting called by a local Minister. The villager has  come  all the by bus and on foot, to see you and give an application seeking protection m the powerful landlord. The villager keeps on waiting outside the meeting and an hour. You come out of the meeting and are rushing to another meeting. The villager follows you to his application. What would you do?
(a)   Tell  him  to  wait for two hours till you come back your next meeting.
(b)    Tell him that the matter to be dealt by a junk Beer and that he should give the population to him.
(c)    Call one of your subordinate officers and ask: him to solve the villager's problem.
(d)    Quickly take the    application from him, ask him a relevant questions regarding his problem and then proceed to the meeting.

78.    There is a shortage of sugar in your District where you are the District Magistrate. The Government has ordered that only a maximum amount of 30 kg sugar is to be released for wedding celebrations. A son of your close friend is getting married and your friend requests you to release at least 50 kg sugar for his son's wedding. He expresses annoyance when you. tell him about the Government's restrictions on this matter. He feels that since you are the District Magistrate you can release any amount. You do not want to spoil your friendship with him. In such circumstances, how would you deal with the situation?
(a)    Release the extra amount of sugar which your friend has  requested for.
(b)    Refuse your friend the extra amount and strictly follow the rules.
(c)    Show your friend the copy of the Government instructions and then persuade him to accept the lower amount as prescribed in the rules.
(d)    Advise him to directly apply to the allotting authority and inform him that  you  do  not  interfere  in  this matter.


79.    You are in-charge of implementing the Family Planning programme in an area where there is a strong opposition to the present policy. You want to convince the residents of the need for keeping small families. What would be the best way of communicating this message?
(a)    By logically explaining to the residents the need for family planning to improve the health and living standards.
(b)    By encouraging late marriages and proper spacing of children.
(c)    By offering incentives for adopting family planning devices.
(d)    By asking  people  who have  been sterilized or are using contraceptives to directly talk to the residents.

80.    You are a teacher in a University and are setting a question paper on particular subject. One of your colleagues, hose son is preparing for the examination that subject, comes to you and informs you that it is his son's last chance pass that examination and whether you could help him by indicating what  question are going to be in the examination.
    In the past, your colleague had you in another matter. Your colleague informs you that his son will suffer from depression if he fails in this examination. In such   circumstances, what would you do?
(a)    In view of the help he had given you, extend your help to him.
(b)    Regret that you can be of any help to him.
(c)    Explain to your colleague that this would be violating the rust of the University authorities you are not in a position to help inn.
(d)    Report the conduct of oar colleague to the higher authorities

G.S.1 (PT-2013)




                                             G.S.1 (pt-2013)
 

TOPIC

History  -  16
Geography - 17
Polity  - 18
Economic  - 16
Ecology - 12
General Science – 21


1.    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.    Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)    In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer (C)

3.    Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    Geographical Feature        Region      
(a)    Abyssinian Plateau:            Arabia
(b)    Atlas Mountains:            North Western Africa
(c)    Guiana Highlands:        :    South Western Africa          
(d)    Okavango Basin:            Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.    The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.    The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.    At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)-

5.    Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.    across different species of plants
2.    from animals to plants
3.    from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)-

6.    The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.    The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.   
2.    As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.    The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only-
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.    Consider the following:
1.    Star tortoise
2.    Monitor lizard
3.    Pygmy hog
4.    Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.    Arsenic
2.    Sorbitol
3.    Fluoride
4.    Formaldehyde
5.    Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2, 4 and 5 only
(c)    1, 3 and 5 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.    With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)    directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.    Consider the following animals:
1.    Sea cow
2.    Sea-horse
3.    Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.    If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.    take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.    be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.    speak in the Lok Sabha
4.    vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 4
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.    Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.    Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.    Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)    the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)    the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)    latitudinal position of the place
(d)    revolution  of the  earth  on  a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.    It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.    It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.    The land  slopes  to  the  west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

16.    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)    is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)    is  found in  freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)    exists as groundwater
(d)    exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.    Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve    : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake    Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :    Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

18.    Consider the following:
1.    Electromagnetic radiation
2.    Geothermal energy
3.    Gravitational force
4.    Plate movements
5.    Rotation of the earth
6.    Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)    1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.    National Development Council
2.    Planning Commission
3.    Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)    writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)
21.    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)    with   the   consent   of  all   the States
(b)    with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)    with the consent of the States concerned
(d)    without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.    In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)    insects and fungi
(b)    limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)    water limits and fire
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

23.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)    Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)-

24.  Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)    Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)    low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)    Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)    None to the above
Answer (A)-

25.    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)    To provide self- governance
(b)    To recognize traditional rights
(c)    To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)


26.    Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)    State Forest Department
(b)    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)    Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.    Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)    bacteria
(b)    protozoa
(c)    moulds
(d)    viruses
Answer (C)

28.    'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)    None of the above
Answer (B)

29.    Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.    Beryllium
2.    Cadmium
3.    Chromium
4.    Heptachlor
5.    Mercury
6.    Lead
7.    Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)    1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)    carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)    carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)    ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)    nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.    With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.    A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.    Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.    A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
    National Park    River flowing through the Park
1.    Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.    Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.    Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    3 only
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (D)

33.    Consider the following organisms:
1.    Agaricus
2.    Nostoc
3.    Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    3 only
Answer (b)

34.    Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.    Excretion of urea by animals
2.    Burning of coal by man
3.    Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)-

35.    In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.        Tamil Nadu
2.         Kerala
3.    Karnataka
4.    Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)    There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)    The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)    The complete annihilation of self
(c)    A state of bliss and rest
(d)    A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)-

38.    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)    Fundamental Rights
(b)    Fundamental Duties
(c)    Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)    Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)    there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)    the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.    Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)    Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)    Cripps Proposals
(c)    Simon Commission Report
(d)    Wavell Plan
Answer (B)
41.    The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)    all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)    goods exported from a country during a year
(c)    economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)    capital movements from one country to another
Answer (a-)

42.    The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.    liquidity of assets
2.    branch expansion
3.    merger of banks
4.    winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 4 only
(b)    2, 3 and 4 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.    An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)    market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)    Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)    Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)    economic development
(b)    redemption of public debt
(c)    adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.    They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.    They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.    They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (b-)

46.    Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.    Chikungunya
2.    Hepatitis B
3.    HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)        1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.    The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.    Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.    Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.    Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (b-)

49.    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)    NO2, O3 and     peroxyaceryl nitrate in the    presence of sunlight
(b)    CO, O2 and     peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the    presence    of
(c)    CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)    high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.    Consider the following minerals:
1.    Calcium
2.    Iron
3.    Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)-

51.    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.    consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.    scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.    examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.    Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.    Dadu Dayal
2.    Guru Nanak
3.    Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)    1 and 3
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.    Virus
2.    Fungi
3.    Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.    The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)    warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)    rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)    warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)    continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.    Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.    Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.    Coexistence of a large number of species
3.    Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.    Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.    Foreign Loans
2.    Foreign Direct Investment
3.    Private Remittances
4.    Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    1, 2 and 4
(c)    2, 3 and 4
(d)    1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.    Consider the following historical places:
1.    Ajanta Caves
2.    Lepakshi Temple
3.    Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

58.    With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the    following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.    Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.    Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any  exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)-

59.    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.    Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.    Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.    Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.    Thermal difference between land and water
2.    Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.    Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.    Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)
61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.    High ash content
2.    Low sulphur content
3.    Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)-

62.    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.    They are generally red in colour.
2.    They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.    They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.    Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    2, 3 and 4
(c)    1 and 4
(d)    2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.    Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.    Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)-

64.    Consider the following crops:
1.    Cotton
2.    Groundnut
3.    Rice
4.    Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)    1 and 4
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
    The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    (a)    African Savannah
    (b)    Central Asian Steppe
    (c)    North American Prairie
    (d)    Siberian Tundra
    Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
    1.    Inflation benefits the debtors.
    2.    Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer (A)

67.    Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)    large number of people remain unemployed
(b)    alternative employment is not available
(c)    marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)    productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.    The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.    The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.    National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.    The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.    The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.    While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.    With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.    Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.    It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.    meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.    lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.    violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (d-)

73.    Consider the following pairs:
    Tribe        State
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 4 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.    Demand deposits with the banks
2.    Time deposits with the banks
3.    Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)    1-4-3-2
(b)    4-3-2-1
(c)    2-3-1-4
(d)    4-1-3-2
Answer (D)-

75.    In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)    borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)    lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)    purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)     None of the above
Answer (C)

76.    Priority Sector Lending by banks in
    India constitutes the lending to
(a)    agriculture
(b)    micro and small enterprises
(c)    weaker sections
(d)    All of the above
Answer (D)

77.    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)    Engineering
(b)    Paper and pulp
(c)    Textiles
(d)    Thermal power
Answer (B)-

78.    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)    Promoting skill development
(b)    Introducing more social security schemes
(c)    Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)    Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.    In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)    Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)    Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)    A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.    Annie Besant was
1.    responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.    the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.    once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)
81.    The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)    imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)    imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)    removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)    removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.    A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.    an increase in the money supply
2.    a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.    an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.    Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)    Repayment of public debt
(b)    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)    Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.    Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)    a fall in the level of prices
(b)    an increase in the rate of interest
(c)    a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)    an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)    exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)    concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)    rate of respiration is decreased
(d)    there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.    Consider the following fauna of India:
1.    Gharial
2.    Leatherback turth
3.    Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (C)
88.   Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because
(a)The actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased.
(b)The effective areaof contact between the wheel and axle is increased.
(c)The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced.
(d)None of the above statement is correct
Answer (C)


89.    Consider the following phenomena:
1.    Size of the sun at dusk
2.    Colour of the sun at dawn
3.    Moon being visible at dawn
4.    Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.    Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    3, 4 and 5
(c)    1, 2 and 4
(d)    2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.    Dispersion
2.    Refraction
3.    Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)    the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)    most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)    most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)    leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.    Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)    there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)    there is population growth in X
(c)    there is capital formation in X
(d)    the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.    Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.    Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.    Hard and waxy leaves
2.    Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.    Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)    Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)    Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.    It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.    It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.    It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.    Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.    resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.    tolerate extremes of pH
3.    resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.    The Prime Minister
2.    The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.    Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.    Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1, 3 and 4 only
(c)    2 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)    total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)    sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)    sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)    money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.    Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.    Regional Rural Banks
2.    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.    Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)